It isn't. It is an approximation. It is more like three-hundred and eighty-something.In this illustration - how is this voltage calculated?
It isn't. It is an approximation. It is more like three-hundred and eighty-something.
277.13@120? - 120@0? = 352.8@137.1?
with an additional 30? phase shift between the sources, you get:
277.13@150? - 120@0? = 385.7@158.9?
I suppose you could even have 277.13@180? - 120@0? = 397.1@180?
At any rate, it is over 300 volts.
It is not specified but it would be reasonable to consider the worse case unless you could prove otherwise.So they are referring to the worst case scenario voltage deference? i.e. the potential is not necessarily over 300 but could be depending on phase angle between 120 and 277?
It is not specified but it would be reasonable to consider the worse case unless you could prove otherwise.
The lowest I could picture in my head was a 90? difference which gives:
277.13@90? - 120@0? = 302.0@113.4?
Unless I missed it, there may be something below 300 volts but it would be for specifically restricted legs of the supplies.
If we look at the worst case, you would pick the highest voltage between any two phases of the two systems. While the two "best" phases might be 277-120=157, that same 120@0? needs to be compared to the other two 277 phase possibilities at 120? and 240?.Wouldn't the lowest be 120V<0 and 277V<0?
Most 120 is created through a Delta to wye XFMR, so it might be 277V<0 and 120V<30.
I know that 277 volts and 120 volts come from two different systems so - if someone could please help me out. In this illustration - how is this voltage calculated?
Thanks - Jimmie
About the only way to get both the 120 and 277 in phase would be to have a high voltage distrubution system with 480/277Y and 208/120Y transformers fed from the high voltage. Most of the time that would not be the case and you would have the 30? phase shift for the 120.Wouldn't the lowest be 120V<0 and 277V<0?
Most 120 is created through a Delta to wye XFMR, so it might be 277V<0 and 120V<30.